Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

There's no rule.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

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Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

What is the belief about the existence of past lives and memories? Do we have knowledge of our past lives at birth or does it come back to us gradually?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

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Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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